Interesting End to Tonight's Game

[Clyde]

Here is video.

 

Owings singles for walk-off win | MLB.com

[Clyde]

I think the umpires caught a break due to the order of the appeals by the Reds AND the employee touching the ball.

[UKMustangFan]

So based on this rule, if say in the 2nd inning the Reds have bases loaded and one out, Hamilton hits a ground ball to 3rd. The 3rd baseman touches the base and fires to second to complete a double play. If Hamilton is able to touch 1st before the 2nd out is made, and the runner on third crosses beforehand, the run would count?

 

Sorry, there is no way I buy that the umps would do that. None.

[nkuclubbaseball19]

I think the umpires caught a break due to the order of the appeals by the Reds AND the employee touching the ball.

 

I do think the watching the video you posted that the umps tell Phillips that he stepped on the bases in the wrong order. That was the reason it looked like they gave him.

[Clyde]

So based on this rule, if say in the 2nd inning the Reds have bases loaded and one out, Hamilton hits a ground ball to 3rd. The 3rd baseman touches the base and fires to second to complete a double play. If Hamilton is able to touch 1st before the 2nd out is made, and the runner on third crosses beforehand, the run would count?

 

Sorry, there is no way I buy that the umps would do that. None.

 

The rule cited by the umpires would not apply in your situation since it wasn't ending a game.

[Clyde]

I do think the watching the video you posted that the umps tell Phillips that he stepped on the bases in the wrong order. That was the reason it looked like they gave him.

 

Correct. No force at third once BP stepped on 2nd.

 

However, I am not convinced the rule they cited would have been used correctly had the Reds appealed in the proper order. We'll never know.

[UKMustangFan]

The rule cited by the umpires would not apply in your situation since it wasn't ending a game.

 

So force out rules change in end of game situations? If it applies in the 1st 8 innings, how does it not apply after that?

[Clyde]

So force out rules change in end of game situations? If it applies in the 1st 8 innings, how does it not apply after that?

 

That's why I posted something about needing to see some case plays to see how the wording cited is supposed to be used.

 

I think the rule's intention is for plays where the crowd rushes the field (1977 AL Playoffs - Chris Chambliss) or there's a bases-loaded walk or HBP.

 

Had it been a ground ball to 3rd who stepped on 3rd for out #2 and then a throw to 2nd for out #3 then IMO the run could NOT count even though the batter reached first.

[LRCW]

Richard Fitch ‏@RichardFitchNYC 2h2 hours ago Price: "He didn’t go to second base.” Umpire: “You didn’t go to Chapman.” Game over.

 

Now that's funny.

[BirdBrain]

So force out rules change in end of game situations? If it applies in the 1st 8 innings, how does it not apply after that?

 

Once the winning run crosses the plate, the play has ended, provided the batter-runner touches first base. Game is over with no timing plays and no force plays eligible.

[UKMustangFan]

Once the winning run crosses the plate, the play has ended, provided the batter-runner touches first base. Game is over with no timing plays and no force plays eligible.

 

So in my example posted earlier, if it happened in the bottom of the 9th inning the double play wouldn't count?

[BirdBrain]

I believe that the double play stands because the force is still in effect, irrespective of when the run crosses the plate or the batter-runner touches first (he reaches by FC)

[UKMustangFan]

I believe that the double play stands because the force is still in effect, irrespective of when the run crosses the plate or the batter-runner touches first (he reaches by FC)

 

So then how does it not count in yesterday's game, assuming they did it in the correct order?

[AverageJoesGym]

So then how does it not count in yesterday's game, assuming they did it in the correct order?

 

Except I think the fan touching the ball would have negated it anyway. In the case of interference the umpires would award however many bases that they feel the runners would have attained. On a ball hit to the wall they'd have had to have given each runner at least one base.

[All In]

Once the winning run crosses the plate, the play has ended, provided the batter-runner touches first base. Game is over with no timing plays and no force plays eligible.

 

In the situation that happened yesterday this what I thought, never ever considered that each runner had to touch a base before celebrating. But BP was adamant about it from the get go and the D-Back that had the winning hit said the team messed up on the base paths as well in his presser. Is/was this even considered for review?