Count me as one who diagrees with you Ace. Two teams with different styles amost always create an opportunity for a disparity in fouls called especially against the team who challenges everything. In addition. a disaparity can exist between two teams with similar styles and talent if one team happens to play the game more intelligently. A team that is always reaching in, slapping down at ball, rebounding from behind and always trying to challenge shots laterally(more interested in rejecting the ball to the stands instead of challenging the shot vertically) will always have more fouls than a team who does not reach, does not slap, boxes out and only challenges shots vertically.

 

 

I understand where you guys are coming from, trust me. I am not questioning that disparities can and will occur, the key word if you reread my posts is the word "unreasonable" disparity. This means taking the disparity issue to the highest degree. I think the jest of this thread refers to the Ashland-Rose Hill game(I could be wrong in my assumption and please lets not get on that bandwagon) where free throws were 37-10 in favor of Ashland. I think all will agree these two teams were very close in talent. I am not questioning the calls in this game at all here, just that this type of "disparity" is probably the unusual exception. And don't worry if you still disagree, I am not offended.:notworthy:

Tell that to the high school coaches that let you know when their team is on the wrong end of the foul count.

 

I would say that all good coaches will use that as a tactic to potentially improve the next call, hopefully in their favor? :idunno:

I've read in many threads about the disparity in the number of free throws. The thinking is that if one team has many more than the others that the officials must have been wrong.

 

Why is there the thought that free throws attempted should be the same or nearly the same?

 

Does that apply to travel calls?

 

I don't understand why anyone would think that fouls called should be equal for both teams. Actually, have never met anyone who thinks that would be a good idea.

As a fan, I am not looking for the officials to distribute the calls evenly between the two teams, just that they are consistent on both ends of the floor.

 

Consistent is the issue here. If one team fouls more than they should have more fouls no brainer. But if the officials call something tight on one end and then let them have their way on the other with out blowing a whistle brings the fans into hollering.

I understand where you guys are coming from, trust me. I am not questioning that disparities can and will occur, the key word if you reread my posts is the word "unreasonable" disparity. This means taking the disparity issue to the highest degree. I think the jest of this thread refers to the Ashland-Rose Hill game(I could be wrong in my assumption and please lets not get on that bandwagon) where free throws were 37-10 in favor of Ashland. I think all will agree these two teams were very close in talent. I am not questioning the calls in this game at all here, just that this type of "disparity" is probably the unusual exception. And don't worry if you still disagree, I am not offended.:notworthy:

 

I am not trying to spit hairs here I just think this type of situation happens more than the term "unusual exception" implies although it is covered up some by officials who do try to even up calls toward the end of games. You might get some disagreement on the Ashland-Rose Hill equal talent comment though because their are some on this board who think Ashland has no talent.

I don't understand why anyone would think that fouls called should be equal for both teams. Actually, have never met anyone who thinks that would be a good idea.

 

Really? You've never heard anyone complain (fan or coach) about his/her team having many more fouls called than the opponent?

I've read in many threads about the disparity in the number of free throws. The thinking is that if one team has many more than the others that the officials must have been wrong.

 

Why is there the thought that free throws attempted should be the same or nearly the same?

 

Does that apply to travel calls?

 

In 30 years of broadcasting HS sports, I've seen a lot of "disparity" in FT shooting - and 99% of the time, it was totally justified.

 

If your team sits and cranks up threes all day long, and you're playing a team full of slashers, you can expect to watch more free throws than you shoot.

 

But occasionally the numbers don't add up. The North Oldham - Adair County game from this year was certainly puzzling. Although I didn't attend the game, the fact that North Oldham shot just three free throws was amazing, especially considering North's offense is predicated on the drive to the basket...which usually generates at least 15 FTA a game. North shot three.

 

But the fact that Adair shot 46 was, frankly, irrelevant. North is a physical team that does foul. The fact Adair shot 43 more free throws was a bit unusual, but the questionable part of the game was the fact that North shot just three. It wouldn't have mattered whether Adair shot 10 or 60; I've never seen a team shoot just three free throws.

 

In other words, IT WASN'T THE DISPARITY THAT WAS QUESTIONABLE, IT WAS THE NUMBER OF FTs SHOT BY NORTH OLDHAM...which, of course, led to the disparity in shots.

I just don't think it is reasonable to believe that if two teams are similar in talent and play similar styles that there could be a huge discrepency except in very rare occassions.

 

Now should officials set out to make sure the fouls are even? Absolutely not but the law of averages dictate that it will even itself out over time.

I see a good jump stop incorrectly called as traveling quite a bit.

 

Darius Miller had it down pat; loved to use it when penetrating the lane, but there were some officials that you would think had never seen it before, and would call the travel.

 

Keith Bogans was great at that as well.

Really? You've never heard anyone complain (fan or coach) about his/her team having many more fouls called than the opponent?

 

Oh yes, of course I have heard coaches, fans etc complain about fouls.

 

What I meant was that I had never run across anyone who thought there should be any type of rule where each side should have an equal amount of fouls. That is what I thought you meant by your post.

:thumb: Agreed. The only other thing is that some very aggressive teams foul so much that the bumps, hands in hips, and chops don't get called until it is a hard foul. While the other team is not as aggressive and the tic tack fouls are called. Style of play is part of the issue.

Consistent is the issue here. If one team fouls more than they should have more fouls no brain er. But if the officials call something tight on one end and then let them have their way on the other with out blowing a whistle brings the fans into hollering.

Oh yes, of course I have heard coaches, fans etc complain about fouls.

 

What I meant was that I had never run across anyone who thought there should be any type of rule where each side should have an equal amount of fouls. That is what I thought you meant by your post.

 

You read it correctly. However, while I completely agree with you on the fact that it "should not" be even there is a growing number of threads that include the fact that something was wrong because of the foul count.