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Need some clarification please

 

Runner on 1st no outs. 1st base playing in to defend bunt. hard ground ball hit between 1st and 2nd basmen glances off baserunner into right field. Ump makes no call and lets play continue. I asked if he seen the ball hit the runner and he told me " as long as a batted ball passes a fielder including the pitcher before it makes contact with the runner its a no call and play continues" I have always thought that a batted ball that hits the runner is a dead ball out and runner goes back to first. Can anyone clear this up for me please.

 

Thanks

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Need some clarification please

 

Runner on 1st no outs. 1st base playing in to defend bunt. hard ground ball hit between 1st and 2nd basmen glances off baserunner into right field. Ump makes no call and lets play continue. I asked if he seen the ball hit the runner and he told me " as long as a batted ball passes a fielder including the pitcher before it makes contact with the runner its a no call and play continues" I have always thought that a batted ball that hits the runner is a dead ball out and runner goes back to first. Can anyone clear this up for me please.

 

Thanks

 

correct call

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Wouldn't all balls hit in theory pass the pitcher? Is a pitcher expected to be able to field a hard ground ball between 1st and 2nd? I think the pitcher does not count and runner was safe since the closest fielder was playing up in front of the base path and runner.

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From the official rule book Rule 7.08: the runner is out if "He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder. The ball is dead and no runner may score, nor runners advance, except runners forced to advance. EXCEPTION: If a runner is touching his base when touched by an Infield Fly, he is not out, although the batter is out;

 

Rule 7.08(f) Comment: If two runners are touched by the same fair ball, only the first one is out because the ball is instantly dead.

 

If runner is touched by an Infield Fly when he is not touching his base, both runner

and batter are out."

 

 

Rule 7.09 is also relevant. The runner is not out if 1) the ball was first deflected by a fielder or 2) if the umpire is convinced that the ball went through or past the fielder untouched, and in the umpire's judgment no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball.If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference."

However, if in the umpire's judgment the runner intentionally kicks the batted ball, the runner shall be called out for interference.

 

If a runner is touched by a batted ball in foul territory he is not out though.

I don't think the pitcher counts in this situation or should not count.

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Need some clarification please

 

Runner on 1st no outs. 1st base playing in to defend bunt. hard ground ball hit between 1st and 2nd basmen glances off baserunner into right field. Ump makes no call and lets play continue. I asked if he seen the ball hit the runner and he told me " as long as a batted ball passes a fielder including the pitcher before it makes contact with the runner its a no call and play continues" I have always thought that a batted ball that hits the runner is a dead ball out and runner goes back to first. Can anyone clear this up for me please.

 

Thanks

 

This Ump might need a "refresher" course in at least one aspect (the pitcher), however if the 2nd baseman had an opportunity to make the out, then the Ump made the wrong call, runner is OUT.

 

When a runner is struck with a fair untouched batted ball while not in contact with a base and before it passes another infielder excluding the pitcher, or if it passes an infielder and another fielder has an opportunity to make an out . EFFECT: The ball is dead and the runner is out. All other runners must return to the last base legally touched at the time of the intereference."

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When a runner is struck with a fair untouched batted ball while not in contact with a base and before it passes another infielder excluding the pitcher, or if it passes an infielder and another fielder has an opportunity to make an out . EFFECT: The ball is dead and the runner is out. All other runners must return to the last base legally touched at the time of the intereference."

 

I'm not sure about softball, but in baseball, a runner in contact with a base is still out (unless the ball has passed a fielder and no other fielder has a reasonable chance to make a play). The base in not a safe haven.

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OK so in fastpitch where the corners are always inside the diamond any ball that is hit in the 3 or 6 hole that hits the runner is a play on and not an out correct?

 

Thanks for all the replies

 

Not completely true. It depends on where the other infielders are.

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OK so in fastpitch where the corners are always inside the diamond any ball that is hit in the 3 or 6 hole that hits the runner is a play on and not an out correct?

 

Thanks for all the replies

 

Not completely true. It depends on where the other infielders are.

 

If the other infielders could have a "reasonable" attempt at making the play then the runner is out.

 

If the corners are playing in, as they usually do, and the ball is hit past them, but the 2nd baseman or SS can make the play then the runner is OUT.

 

When a runner is struck with a fair untouched batted ball while not in contact with a base and before it passes another infielder excluding the pitcher, or if it passes an infielder and another fielder has an opportunity to make an out . EFFECT: The ball is dead and the runner is out. All other runners must return to the last base legally touched at the time of the intereference."

Edited by Lawnboy13
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Sounds to me like the situation the OP described was that F4 was playing way in ... the batted ball had already passed by her AND no onther infielder had a chance at making a play therefore === correct call ? Thats the way I read it .

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Sounds to me like the situation the OP described was that F4 was playing way in ... the batted ball had already passed by her AND no onther infielder had a chance at making a play therefore === correct call ? Thats the way I read it .

 

As described I say it was a correct call even if he didn't get it right for the right reason. I am assuming no other infielder had a play.

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Yes you were correct no other fielder had a chance to make a play on the ball. It was hit too hard for 1st ta have a play on it and 2nd would have had to make a diving attempt to even get close.

 

Thanks for the input on clearing up my confusion.....

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