It depends on a few things. The pitcher cannot start forward before spinning. His cannot (I don't think) pause when he raises his leg. If those requirements are met, its a legal play.

 

The runner should NOT be running until he is sure the pitcher is going to home. You can't penalize the runner for the pitcher making a legal move just because its not used very often.

 

Runners are supposed to steal on first movement by a right handed pitcher. It's taught that way at every level of the game. If a runner waits until they are for sure the pitcher is going home, they will be gunned out 90% of the time.

Edited July 2, 200818 yr by Ram
Rule 13

runners are supposed to steal on first movement by a right handed pitcher. It's taught that way at every level of the game. If a runner waits until they are for sure the pitcher is going home, they will be gunned out 90% of the time.

 

Then they had better be good at guessing.

 

Its a legal move that I've never seen used on a runner going to 2nd. However, it is legal.

 

From my earlier post:

 

A note from the Evans manual:

 

A casebook note was added in 1976. It clarified the issue of a pitcher making a complete turn (without hesitating toward first base) and throwing to second when the umpire believed the runner was attempting to advance...see 8.05 End Notes (b).

It depends on a few things. The pitcher cannot start forward before spinning. His cannot (I don't think) pause when he raises his leg. If those requirements are met, its a legal play.

 

The runner should NOT be running until he is sure the pitcher is going to home. You can't penalize the runner for the pitcher making a legal move just because its not used very often.

 

This is correct. In addition I'd add that his non pivot foot cannot cross the rubber, and his motion cannot be one that is abnormal from his normal motion, with intent to deceive the runner.

Then they had better be good at guessing.

 

Its a legal move that I've never seen used on a runner going to 2nd. However, it is legal.

 

From my earlier post:

 

It is legal, but there is a reason you've never seen it.

 

First, the pitcher has basically committed himself to a balk should the runner not go. Any bluff by the runner, or even if the runner falls down, and this would be a balk as there is no play at 2nd. The play has to be AT the base. Not many are willing to risk giving the runner a free base on a hunch.

 

Second, the non pivot foot cannot swing "wide" in a circular motion. It must go directly to 2nd. If it does swing wide it is a balk as either A)the pitcher has committed himself to the plate or B) the pitcher has stepped towards first and thrown to 2nd.

 

So in short, yes it is possible, but the reason you don't see it is because it is, at best, an unneccessary risk. Not to mention it takes a pretty high degree of athleticism to pull off, and will more times than not, result in a balk.

It is legal, but there is a reason you've never seen it.

 

First, the pitcher has basically committed himself to a balk should the runner not go. Any bluff by the runner, or even if the runner falls down, and this would be a balk as there is no play at 2nd. The play has to be AT the base. Not many are willing to risk giving the runner a free base on a hunch.

 

Second, the non pivot foot cannot swing "wide" in a circular motion. It must go directly to 2nd. If it does swing wide it is a balk as either A)the pitcher has committed himself to the plate or B) the pitcher has stepped towards first and thrown to 2nd.

 

So in short, yes it is possible, but the reason you don't see it is because it is, at best, an unneccessary risk. Not to mention it takes a pretty high degree of athleticism to pull off, and will more times than not, result in a balk.

 

I would assume too that the umpire could rule that the runner is not close enough to second base to say the pitcher is "making a play" on a runner.