TheDeuce Posted February 13, 2008 Posted February 13, 2008 This, IMO, is the funny part... "There is no force-out rule and if [Wallace] was forced out, he either was bumped for a foul or he stepped out of bounds," Hyland said. "When a kid is bumped and goes out of bounds, you have to make a call. It's a judgment call." Where was the call when Reynolds got bumped out of bounds? http://sports.espn.go.com/ncb/news/story?id=3242789
nkysportslegend Posted February 13, 2008 Posted February 13, 2008 I'll agree with what they are saying, but I also think that one should have had the whistle swallowed.
*Jeanie* Posted February 13, 2008 Posted February 13, 2008 I'll agree with what they are saying, but I also think that one should have had the whistle swallowed. I have to agree with you nkysportslegend. It seems like at any-other time that would be a foul, no question, but I think you have to swallow your whistle. It was a good call, just bad timing.
greendevil Posted February 13, 2008 Posted February 13, 2008 They are saying that because Wallace actually stepped on the line, there could be no swallowing the whistle, either it was out of bounds, 'Nova ball, or a foul. They didn't have to make a call for Reynolds because he was in the air and jumped out of bounds but never landed, so they let it go. For the record, I don't agree with it, but it seems to me like that is what they are saying.
oldrambler Posted February 13, 2008 Posted February 13, 2008 I agree that no call should have been made, if there was no call on all the play (and fouls) under the basket just prior to that call that was made then that "brush" or touch foul certainly should not have been called. I would have rather have seen him (official) let it go. At best it would had been around a half court shot. Swallow the pill on that one. JMO
JBCousins Posted February 13, 2008 Posted February 13, 2008 This, IMO, is the funny part... "There is no force-out rule and if [Wallace] was forced out, he either was bumped for a foul or he stepped out of bounds," Hyland said. "When a kid is bumped and goes out of bounds, you have to make a call. It's a judgment call." Where was the call when Reynolds got bumped out of bounds? http://sports.espn.go.com/ncb/news/story?id=3242789 100% true....and his judgement was HORRIBLE!
YankeeFan22 Posted February 13, 2008 Posted February 13, 2008 That call decided the game and shouldn't have been called.
sweet16 Posted February 13, 2008 Posted February 13, 2008 If you watch the replay he did not step out of bounds on the initial contact. If he went out of bounnds it was a step or two later. One of the worse calls I have ever seen.
cshs81 Posted February 14, 2008 Posted February 14, 2008 If you watch the replay he did not step out of bounds on the initial contact. If he went out of bounnds it was a step or two later. One of the worse calls I have ever seen. It doesn't matter. If the ref judges that he went out of bounds as a result of the "bump" its a foul. So if you didn't want him to call the foul, you are then saying you would reward the defense for the bump by giving them the ball. Does that seem right? You can't simply ignore the fact that he stepped out of bounds.
mobaar Posted February 14, 2008 Posted February 14, 2008 It doesn't matter. If the ref judges that he went out of bounds as a result of the "bump" its a foul. So if you didn't want him to call the foul, you are then saying you would reward the defense for the bump by giving them the ball. Does that seem right? You can't simply ignore the fact that he stepped out of bounds. I think the argument is that in this case, you DO ignore him going out of bounds. If the ref didn't call anything (foul or out of bounds) nobody would've even noticed he stepped out, and they would've gone on to OT. I really don't care, but I think thats what they're saying.
sweet16 Posted February 14, 2008 Posted February 14, 2008 It doesn't matter. If the ref judges that he went out of bounds as a result of the "bump" its a foul. So if you didn't want him to call the foul, you are then saying you would reward the defense for the bump by giving them the ball. Does that seem right? You can't simply ignore the fact that he stepped out of bounds. He didn't go out of bounds from the bump you can't honestly say that foul should have been called?
Dark Horse Posted February 14, 2008 Posted February 14, 2008 Awful call . Even if you do call out of bounds no ones hurt they cant get a shot it .1 seconds. Go to OT let the players decide the outcome not the zebras. Rediculous call
cshs81 Posted February 14, 2008 Posted February 14, 2008 Awful call . Even if you do call out of bounds no ones hurt they cant get a shot it .1 seconds. Go to OT let the players decide the outcome not the zebras. Rediculous call What? Who says you can't get a shot off with .1 seconds left? They would have had the ball out foul line extended on their own end. How hard is it to throw a lob at the rim and hope for a tip or a foul? You can't give a team that opportunity simply because you want to ignore a call.
NineOh Posted February 14, 2008 Posted February 14, 2008 I think the argument is that in this case, you DO ignore him going out of bounds. If the ref didn't call anything (foul or out of bounds) nobody would've even noticed he stepped out, and they would've gone on to OT. I really don't care, but I think thats what they're saying. You can't just ignore one of the most elementary rules of basketball. That being in/out of bounds. I understand what you're saying but it's just not logical.
malachicrunch Posted February 14, 2008 Posted February 14, 2008 The player the foul was called on decided the game. Why would you even come close to that guy on the sideline?
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