I just talked to a Coach in Ohio. He said that it is correctable, regardless of what has happened, but what transpired in between stays. Therefore, the time stays at :02, Team "B" is up 1, and "A1" goes back to the line for his / her second free throw.

 

How's that for confusing?

But now if they make it who do you give the ball to?

I just talked to a Coach in Ohio. He said that it is correctable, regardless of what has happened, but what transpired in between stays. Therefore, the time stays at :02, Team "B" is up 1, and "A1" goes back to the line for his / her second free throw.

 

How's that for confusing?

 

Ohio's like Russia though. They aren't always playing by the same rules us "normal folk."

 

Seriously, that doesn't seem right. It may be, though.

assuming the freethrow is made

An interesting play that happened in mid 90's state championship game in South Carolina.

 

Team A is up by 1 point. Team B drives the length of the court and puts up a shot, Buzzer goes off. After the horn sounds and the ball is in flight, player from Team A touches the shot but DOES NOT goaltend. Ball continues on flight and goes through the hoop.

 

Team A is in disbelief, Team B is going crazy.

 

Who wins?

An interesting play that happened in mid 90's state championship game in South Carolina.

 

Team A is up by 1 point. Team B drives the length of the court and puts up a shot, Buzzer goes off. After the horn sounds and the ball is in flight, player from Team A touches the shot but DOES NOT goaltend. Ball continues on flight and goes through the hoop.

 

Team A is in disbelief, Team B is going crazy.

 

Who wins?

Would have to be team A

They have the right to adjust the shot in mid air just the same as team B does, assuming its not goal tending

I just talked to a Coach in Ohio. He said that it is correctable, regardless of what has happened, but what transpired in between stays. Therefore, the time stays at :02, Team "B" is up 1, and "A1" goes back to the line for his / her second free throw.

 

How's that for confusing?

 

 

That's a coach for ya !!!!!!!!

Would have to be team A

Correct. Call made by the official is once player on Team A touched the ball AFTER the horn had sounded, it ended the game. It did not matter what happened after the player touched the ball.

 

Imagine having to tell Team B that they DID NOT win the game and it does not matter whether the shot went in or not.

Called an official friend of mine that has been officiating for over 20 years. He said,

Once the basket was made by team B and Team A inbounded it, the time period for it to be corrected ceases.

 

The rule is that you can correct a mistake until the ball is put back in to play after a dead ball.

 

When the shot was made, it temporarily became dead until Team A grabbed the ball and inbounded it. It became live again and thus negated correcting the mistake.

 

At this point, Team B's ball and they are up by 1.

 

Now you're talking. You were very close but the 'once the ball is put in play' was where you were off a bit (and that can be key).

I just talked to a Coach in Ohio. He said that it is correctable, regardless of what has happened, but what transpired in between stays. Therefore, the time stays at :02, Team "B" is up 1, and "A1" goes back to the line for his / her second free throw.

 

How's that for confusing?

 

Incorrect.

 

It was correctable UNTIL Team A put the ball back in play after Team B's basket.

An interesting play that happened in mid 90's state championship game in South Carolina.

 

Team A is up by 1 point. Team B drives the length of the court and puts up a shot, Buzzer goes off. After the horn sounds and the ball is in flight, player from Team A touches the shot but DOES NOT goaltend. Ball continues on flight and goes through the hoop.

 

Team A is in disbelief, Team B is going crazy.

 

Who wins?

 

Team B, the shot went through the goal. Whether the player from team A touches it or not is not a factor.

Now you're talking. You were very close but the 'once the ball is put in play' was where you were off a bit (and that can be key).

I was thinking ball put in play from a dead ball and was not taking into account the rebound and dribble the length of the court.

 

When he began to talk about dead ball, I thought he was going to tell me yes it was correctable because the ball had not been put into play after the charge. But did not know the ball is temporarily considered dead after a made basket.

 

That makes sense though because either team can call a timeout after a made basket.

Team B, the shot went through the goal. Whether the player from team A touches it or not is not a factor.

As in post 23, it does matter. Any touching of the ball by a player or the court signifies the end of the ball game.

 

They went over this play in a coaching/ref clinic in the late 90's. Most of us missed it. I thought the way you did.

New scenario:

 

Team A on the line. A1 misses the first FT. A2 rebounds the miss and puts it in the basket. B1 inbounds the ball to B2. B2 is fouled by A1 in the frontcourt.

 

Wait up: Team A should have shot 2 FTs and not one.

 

What now?

Scenario 3:

 

Real-world example provided by HSSRB:

 

A1 shooting FT - misses - ball hits off of A2 and goes OOB - Team B's ball. B calls timeout to set up the inbounds play.

 

B1 takes the ball out of bounds. B2 runs out of bounds and B1 passes it to B2. B1 then runs inbounds and receives the pass from B2.

 

B1 drives and is fouled in the act of shooting by A3. Its the 5th foul on A3.

 

Coach from A now realizes that it was a spot throw-in and , thus, the play Team A ran was a violation.

 

What do you have? Fts or not? Where is the ball? Who has the ball? What do you do with A3?