BuckNut Posted October 6, 2008 Share Posted October 6, 2008 Illegal or First Touching question. When a free kick does not travel the required ten yards and is touched by a member of K and then blown dead. What is the result of the play? Saw this happen the other night and a fifteen yard penalty was marked off from the spot of first touch against K. Was that the correct call? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ddky1970 Posted October 6, 2008 Share Posted October 6, 2008 No, I dont believe so. I believe it is first touching by K and it becomes R's ball at that spot. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
offside Posted October 6, 2008 Share Posted October 6, 2008 Illegal or First Touching question. When a free kick does not travel the required ten yards and is touched by a member of K and then blown dead. What is the result of the play? Saw this happen the other night and a fifteen yard penalty was marked off from the spot of first touch against K. Was that the correct call? NFHS Rule 6-1-6...If any K player touches a free kick before it crosses R's free-kick line and before it is touched there by any R player, it is referred to as "first touching of the kick." R may take the ball at the spot of first touching, or any spot if there is more than one spot of first touching, or they may choose to have the ball put in play as determined by the action which follows first touching. Such touching is ignored if it is caused by R pushing or blocking K into contact with the ball. The right of R to take the ball at the spot of first touching by K is cancelled if R touches the kick and thereafter during the down commits a foul or if the penalty is accepted for any foul committed during the down. First Touching (or Illegal Touching in NCAA rules) is not a foul; it's a violation which carries no yardage penalty. Based on your description of the play, I can only guess that the receiving team elected to take the ball at the spot of first touching--and then there must have been a dead-ball foul tacked on against the kicking team. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BuckNut Posted October 6, 2008 Author Share Posted October 6, 2008 Based on your description of the play, I can only guess that the receiving team elected to take the ball at the spot of first touching--and then there must have been a dead-ball foul tacked on against the kicking team. That is probably what happend, howver there was no indication given of a dead ball foul. No personal foul or unsportsmanlike foul was ever signaled. The only thing that was signaled to the press box was an illegal(first) touching. Thanks for the info. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hey-Ref Posted October 7, 2008 Share Posted October 7, 2008 Illegal or First Touching question. When a free kick does not travel the required ten yards and is touched by a member of K and then blown dead. What is the result of the play? Saw this happen the other night and a fifteen yard penalty was marked off from the spot of first touch against K. Was that the correct call? Do you remember which yardlines were involved? I assume K kicked from their 40 as normal. Where did a K player first touch the kick? Did the kicked ball touch the ground before a K player touched the kick? Did an R player ever possess the ball and where? Where was the ball next put into play? Did they replay the free kick down, or did R put the ball in play next? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BuckNut Posted October 7, 2008 Author Share Posted October 7, 2008 Do you remember which yardlines were involved? I assume K kicked from their 40 as normal. Where did a K player first touch the kick? Did the kicked ball touch the ground before a K player touched the kick? Did an R player ever possess the ball and where? Where was the ball next put into play? Did they replay the free kick down, or did R put the ball in play next? Kicked off from their 40 the ball rolled to a stop on K's 49 yard line, so it never made it the required 10yds. K then "downed the ball" at that spot (basically while everyone just kind of stood around it - like a punt). After K "downed the ball" the flag was thrown and the officials marked of 15yds and gave an illegal touch signal. The ball was put in play on K's 34 yard line 1st and 10 for the rec. team. Very unusual play, I don't believe I have ever seen that before. It just seems to me that 15yds was a little harsh. I have since learned there was no other infraction called on that play. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hey-Ref Posted October 7, 2008 Share Posted October 7, 2008 If there was no other foul and the play occured as you described, R should have had 1st and 10 at the K49 yardline. Perhaps there was a dead ball foul that was called, such as unsportsmanlike conduct, which resulted in a 15 yard mark off. Maybe the referee forgot to give the signal, or maybe you just didn't see it. Then again, maybe they just got it wrong, which does happen sometimes. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Boonecofan Posted October 7, 2008 Share Posted October 7, 2008 You mean refs get things wrong sometimes? Lol! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
offside Posted October 8, 2008 Share Posted October 8, 2008 You mean refs get things wrong sometimes? Lol! Nah. Sometimes our interpretations get misinterpreted. (Wrong is an ugly word in our world.) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bronco99 Posted October 8, 2008 Share Posted October 8, 2008 Nah. Sometimes our interpretations get misinterpreted. (Wrong is an ugly word in our world.) That's because anyway you look at it you are only 50% right on each call. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
AverageJoesGym Posted October 8, 2008 Share Posted October 8, 2008 The player that "downed" the ball at the 45 didn't actually run out of bounds and then back in did he? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
FBRULES Posted October 8, 2008 Share Posted October 8, 2008 The player that "downed" the ball at the 45 didn't actually run out of bounds and then back in did he? Why would that matter? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Boonecofan Posted October 8, 2008 Share Posted October 8, 2008 Why would that matter? Because a player that goes out of bounds and returns can not be the first one to touch the ball. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
offside Posted October 8, 2008 Share Posted October 8, 2008 Because a player that goes out of bounds and returns can not be the first one to touch the ball. Rule 9-6-2...During the down, no player shall intentionally go out of bounds and return. Illegal Participation, 15 yards. (The player does not have to touch the ball to be guilty of illegal participation). But the basic spot for penalty enforcement of live-ball fouls during a loose ball play is the previous spot. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hey-Ref Posted October 8, 2008 Share Posted October 8, 2008 Because a player that goes out of bounds and returns can not be the first one to touch the ball. Don't confuse NFL and NFHS rules. Too many coaches do that already. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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