March 14, 200818 yr Maimonides devotes most of the "Guide for the Perplexed" to the fundamental idea that God is incorporeal, meaning that He assumes no physical form. Genesis 18 says the Lord appeared to Abraham and Sarah prepared food and drink for them. And they ate. I would assume if the Lord is eating and drinking he would be in a physical form. And who was it that God wrestled with? It is a little unfair to wrestle with God but if God isn't a physical body at the time, that is really unfair.
March 14, 200818 yr I think that it would be hard for the Jewish culture to accept Christ, because up to that point, God was just the God to them, kinda selfish in away. What do you think?
March 14, 200818 yr I think that it would be hard for the Jewish culture to accept Christ, because up to that point, God was just the God to them, kinda selfish in away. What do you think? Probably but the heart of Judaism did not speak that way and neither did the story. Afterall, the Great Grandmother of David was a Moabite by the name of Ruth. Hardly a Hebrew.
March 14, 200818 yr In Judaism, prayer is a totally private matter, between each individual and God. As the Bible says: "God is near to all who call unto Him" (Psalms 145:18). Further, the Ten Commandments state: "You shall have no other gods BEFORE ME," meaning that it is forbidden to set up a mediator between God and man. (see Maimonides - Laws of Idolatry ch. 1) This one really confused me. In OT, a normal person like me would never be allowed to enter the temple would I? I thought there was priests that had to do that for me????
March 14, 200818 yr In Judaism, prayer is a totally private matter, between each individual and God. As the Bible says: "God is near to all who call unto Him" (Psalms 145:18). Further, the Ten Commandments state: "You shall have no other gods BEFORE ME," meaning that it is forbidden to set up a mediator between God and man. (see Maimonides - Laws of Idolatry ch. 1) This one really confused me. In OT, a normal person like me would never be allowed to enter the temple would I? I thought there was priests that had to do that for me???? Actually all could enter the temple that were clean (not bleeding or been around the dead without a time of purification). The question was how far could you journey. The Women and Gentiles had limits to only the outer courts and non-Priests were stopped from the more inner courts. So you could enter the Temple LBBC but only to a certain point.
March 14, 200818 yr Actually all could enter the temple that were clean (not bleeding or been around the dead without a time of purification). The question was how far could you journey. The Women and Gentiles had limits to only the outer courts and non-Priests were stopped from the more inner courts. So you could enter the Temple LBBC but only to a certain point. So at some point, you needed an intermediary which stands in contrast to what was the part I copied and pasted from the original thread. Correct?
March 14, 200818 yr Isaiah 7:14 is one of the great prophetic passages of the Old Testament. Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a son, and she will call His name Immanuel. He will eat curds and honey at the time He knows enough to refuse evil and choose good. For before the boy will know enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken. (NASB) Is. 7:14-16 Meaning of "Virgin." The Hebrew word which is translated as "virgin" is ALMAH. This word is never used for a married woman in the Old Testament. The Old Testament was written in Hebrew and Aramaic. The word is used in Genesis 24:43 to refer to a woman - "maiden" - who was clearly a virgin. This word also appears in Exodus 2:8; Ps. 68:25; Prov. 30:19; and in Song of Solomon 1:3; 6:8. In each case it only refers to an unmarried woman or a virgin. When the Greek version of the Old Testament, the Septuagint or LXX, was written, the Greek translators understood this word to mean "virgin." Since they were closer to the time when Isaiah wrote this book, and since they had a better understanding of the meaning of the Hebrew and Greek languages of their time than we do today, the LXX translation should be trusted. When we come to the New Testament, the Apostle Matthew quotes this passage in Matt. 1:22-23. Now all this took place to fulfill what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet: “BEHOLD, THE VIRGIN SHALL BE WITH CHILD AND SHALL BEAR A SON, AND THEY SHALL CALL HIS NAME IMMANUEL,” which translated means, “GOD WITH US.” (NASB) Matt. 1:22-23 The Greek word for "virgin" means "virgin." If we put all of these facts together, we can come to only one conclusion: Isaiah was referring to a virgin. Matthew tells us that this prophecy refers to Jesus. Matthew also tells us that Jesus will be called Immanuel because He was God with us. The prophecy goes on to tell us that the two kings who caused Ahaz to have great fear would be destroyed. The two kings were King Rezin of Aram and Pekah who was King of Israel (Isa. 7:1-9). The prophecy that is given in verse 16 occurred when Israel was destroyed. This happened about 65 years after the prophecy was given, but it occurred long before Jesus was born. Ahaz was afraid that Jerusalem would be destroyed, and that did not happen until after Jesus' death, return to life, and ascension back to heaven. It occurred in 70 A.D.
March 15, 200818 yr So at some point, you needed an intermediary which stands in contrast to what was the part I copied and pasted from the original thread. Correct? Yes and no. Prayer was lifted to God at anytime by a follower of Yahweh. There was a mediator (Priest) who offered sacrifice for all of the children of Israel on the Day of Atonment but people still offered their own sacrifices through the Temple. Also, when the Hebrews returned from the Exile, they began the Synagogue (local church) form of worship. It was important to journey to Jerusalem for High Holy Days at the Temple but the local synagogue was for worship in the individual communities.
March 15, 200818 yr Isaiah 7:14 is one of the great prophetic passages of the Old Testament. Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a son, and she will call His name Immanuel. He will eat curds and honey at the time He knows enough to refuse evil and choose good. For before the boy will know enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken. (NASB) Is. 7:14-16 Meaning of "Virgin." The Hebrew word which is translated as "virgin" is ALMAH. This word is never used for a married woman in the Old Testament. The Old Testament was written in Hebrew and Aramaic. The word is used in Genesis 24:43 to refer to a woman - "maiden" - who was clearly a virgin. This word also appears in Exodus 2:8; Ps. 68:25; Prov. 30:19; and in Song of Solomon 1:3; 6:8. In each case it only refers to an unmarried woman or a virgin. When the Greek version of the Old Testament, the Septuagint or LXX, was written, the Greek translators understood this word to mean "virgin." Since they were closer to the time when Isaiah wrote this book, and since they had a better understanding of the meaning of the Hebrew and Greek languages of their time than we do today, the LXX translation should be trusted. When we come to the New Testament, the Apostle Matthew quotes this passage in Matt. 1:22-23. Now all this took place to fulfill what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet: “BEHOLD, THE VIRGIN SHALL BE WITH CHILD AND SHALL BEAR A SON, AND THEY SHALL CALL HIS NAME IMMANUEL,” which translated means, “GOD WITH US.” (NASB) Matt. 1:22-23 The Greek word for "virgin" means "virgin." If we put all of these facts together, we can come to only one conclusion: Isaiah was referring to a virgin. Matthew tells us that this prophecy refers to Jesus. Matthew also tells us that Jesus will be called Immanuel because He was God with us. The prophecy goes on to tell us that the two kings who caused Ahaz to have great fear would be destroyed. The two kings were King Rezin of Aram and Pekah who was King of Israel (Isa. 7:1-9). The prophecy that is given in verse 16 occurred when Israel was destroyed. This happened about 65 years after the prophecy was given, but it occurred long before Jesus was born. Ahaz was afraid that Jerusalem would be destroyed, and that did not happen until after Jesus' death, return to life, and ascension back to heaven. It occurred in 70 A.D. Actually Jerusalem was sacked by the Bablylonians in 586 BC and the gates were destroyed and the temple of Solomon laid low. The temple of Jesus day was King Herod's Temple (which was grander in scale than Solomon's). Ahaz was promised that by the time the child was weaned (eating curds and honey) the "threat" would be abated.
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