February 18, 200917 yr Thanks for the citation. :thumb: 8If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. 9If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. 10If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word has no place in our lives. 1 John 1:8-10 We all have sinned, if we hadn't Jesus would not have had to die. But what part of ALL in the verses above do you not understand? Read I John 3:6 "Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him." Jesus said he wouldn't have us tempted above that which we were able to bear, but with EVERY temptation he'd make the way for our escape. Good enough for me.
February 18, 200917 yr We all have sinned, if we hadn't Jesus would not have had to die. But what part of ALL in the verses above do you not understand? Read I John 3:6 "Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him." Jesus said he wouldn't have us tempted above that which we were able to bear, but with EVERY temptation he'd make the way for our escape. Good enough for me. Didn't know I was making a statement of understanding at all but just merely quoting a scripture. :idunno: In reference to 1 John 3:6, the key phrase in the KJV is "abideth." This is different than someone who sins. A.T. Robertson points out that the phrase "sinneth not" is the phrase ouch hamartanei which is the linear present active indicative form of hamartano which literally means "does not keep sinning." It is the activity of living in a perpetual state of sin. The phrase "whosoever sinneth" is written in the same tense and indicates one who lives a life of sin, not mere occasional acts of sin. If it meant every occasional activity that is sin it would be an aorist active participle and written harmartesas. A similar grammatical case can be made for verse 9 of 1 John 3 as well. BTW, can you give me the verse your quoting in the bottom part of the above post. I know Jesus speaks of not giving us more than we can bear but having a time remembering the temptation part of that verse and where. Thanks.
February 19, 200917 yr Didn't know I was making a statement of understanding at all but just merely quoting a scripture. :idunno: In reference to 1 John 3:6, the key phrase in the KJV is "abideth." This is different than someone who sins. A.T. Robertson points out that the phrase "sinneth not" is the phrase ouch hamartanei which is the linear present active indicative form of hamartano which literally means "does not keep sinning." It is the activity of living in a perpetual state of sin. The phrase "whosoever sinneth" is written in the same tense and indicates one who lives a life of sin, not mere occasional acts of sin. If it meant every occasional activity that is sin it would be an aorist active participle and written harmartesas. A similar grammatical case can be made for verse 9 of 1 John 3 as well. BTW, can you give me the verse your quoting in the bottom part of the above post. I know Jesus speaks of not giving us more than we can bear but having a time remembering the temptation part of that verse and where. Thanks. I can't be concerned with Robertson's grammatical riddles. It's like this: if you play; you are a player. If you drink; you are a drinker. If you sin; you are a sinner. And if you are a sinner; then, what have you been saved from? Certainly not sin. What did Jesus command many of those he worked miracles for? Was it go and sin every day? No, he said, "Thy sins be forgiven thee. Go and sin no more." I'll look up the verse in question.
February 19, 200917 yr I can't be concerned with Robertson's grammatical riddles. It's like this: if you play; you are a player. If you drink; you are a drinker. If you sin; you are a sinner. And if you are a sinner; then, what have you been saved from? Certainly not sin. What did Jesus command many of those he worked miracles for? Was it go and sin every day? No, he said, "Thy sins be forgiven thee. Go and sin no more." I'll look up the verse in question. They are hardly Robertson's riddles, I was just using his work as a resource start. The grammatical statements I made are based on the Greek New Testament which predates your King James Translation considerably. If you don't want to be concerned with the way a text actually reads or the syntax involved in it's best form that's an issue for you, not the text. Your simplistic illustration is not truthful with the text you cited. As to your quote from John 8 that was the instance with the woman caught in adultery, not a miracle of Jesus. The statement you quoted is not Jesus' statement with each person he met, taught or healed.
February 19, 200917 yr They are hardly Robertson's riddles, I was just using his work as a resource start. The grammatical statements I made are based on the Greek New Testament which predates your King James Translation considerably. If you don't want to be concerned with the way a text actually reads or the syntax involved in it's best form that's an issue for you, not the text. Your simplistic illustration is not truthful with the text you cited. As to your quote from John 8 that was the instance with the woman caught in adultery, not a miracle of Jesus. The statement you quoted is not Jesus' statement with each person he met, taught or healed. I am concerned with the way the text reads. When it says he that sinneth is of the devil; I believe it. I wouldn't dismiss what Jesus did for her too lightly. She was about to be stoned to death by an angry mob. He diffused the situation, saved her life and delivered her from Sin. You know...I'd call that a miracle. Read John 5: (8-14)
February 19, 200917 yr I can't be concerned with Robertson's grammatical riddles. It's like this: if you play; you are a player. If you drink; you are a drinker. If you sin; you are a sinner. And if you are a sinner; then, what have you been saved from? Certainly not sin. What did Jesus command many of those he worked miracles for? Was it go and sin every day? No, he said, "Thy sins be forgiven thee. Go and sin no more." I'll look up the verse in question. Are you saved? And, if so, would I be safe in assuming that you haven't sinned since that moment?
February 20, 200917 yr I am concerned with the way the text reads. When it says he that sinneth is of the devil; I believe it. I wouldn't dismiss what Jesus did for her too lightly. She was about to be stoned to death by an angry mob. He diffused the situation, saved her life and delivered her from Sin. You know...I'd call that a miracle. Read John 5: (8-14) As am I. That's why I went back to see how the Greek text reads, not the Authorized English text. :thumb:
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