OBR: BR hits grounder to F6. While running to first, he beats the throw but misses the first base bag. F3 steps on the bag before the runner returns.

 

Call?

OBR: BR hits grounder to F6. While running to first, he beats the throw but misses the first base bag. F3 steps on the bag before the runner returns.

 

Call?

 

Out. He never acquired first base, so it is still a force play.

What was your initial thought?

 

My initial thought was this:

 

Team at bat has the option to take the play IF the batter/runner does not reach 1st base safely. In this case the result of the play is that the batter gets a double, so he does reach(and pass) 1st safely. HOWEVER, the appeal removes this as in the case of the appeal the BR does not reach 1st safely(which would in turn cause the runner on 1st to reach 2nd safely). So I would say that the batting team would have the option to take the result of the play(no runs scored, inning over) or the balk. Assuming we ARE actually trying to win the game, they take the balk scoring 1 run and moving R1 to 2nd base with the batter remaining at the plate.

OBR: BR hits grounder to F6. While running to first, he beats the throw but misses the first base bag. F3 steps on the bag before the runner returns.

 

Call?

 

Does F3 appeal that the runner missed the bag or just "accidentally" step on the bag? If he appeals I have an out. If not, I've got nothing.

I'm curious about #5 Cooperstown. My initial thought is that this is an IFF situation, to protect the runners from being put in jeopardy. I would tend to agree with Coach Kinney, but the word "soft" makes me think this is a routine looping ball in the IF so I would go with the IFF. Hard to judge unless you see it. Am I missing something?

My initial thought was this:

 

Team at bat has the option to take the play IF the batter/runner does not reach 1st base safely. In this case the result of the play is that the batter gets a double, so he does reach(and pass) 1st safely. HOWEVER, the appeal removes this as in the case of the appeal the BR does not reach 1st safely(which would in turn cause the runner on 1st to reach 2nd safely). So I would say that the batting team would have the option to take the result of the play(no runs scored, inning over) or the balk. Assuming we ARE actually trying to win the game, they take the balk scoring 1 run and moving R1 to 2nd base with the batter remaining at the plate.

 

I think you have the scenario confused (probably because it is a confusing scenario!). The runner who missed the second base bag was the runner that was already on 1B, not the BR.

 

Also, the balk is only removed if the BR safely reaches first base AND all other runners safely advance one base (which is now the point of contention - did the 1B runner actually "advance" one base since he missed second base). Also, the offensive manager does not get an option in this situation. The situation you are thinking about is catcher's interference, I believe.

I'm curious about #5 Cooperstown. My initial thought is that this is an IFF situation, to protect the runners from being put in jeopardy. I would tend to agree with Coach Kinney, but the word "soft" makes me think this is a routine looping ball in the IF so I would go with the IFF. Hard to judge unless you see it. Am I missing something?

 

It qualifies as an Infield Fly, the legal definition of which is "a fair fly ball, not including a line drive nor an attempted bunt, which can be caught by an infielder with ordinary effort when first and second, or first, second, and thrid bases are occupied, before two are out. Since a "Line Drive" is defined as "a batted ball that goes SHARP and DIRECT from the bat to a fielder without touching the ground", this looping little floater does indeed qualify for IFF for the very reason you stated - to protect the runners. And yes, Coach K was right, if the fielder intentionally drops the ball, the BR is out and runners return to bases without jeopardy. I put this one in there because most people think an IFF has to be some sky-high popup.

I think you have the scenario confused (probably because it is a confusing scenario!). The runner who missed the second base bag was the runner that was already on 1B, not the BR.

 

Also, the balk is only removed if the BR safely reaches first base AND all other runners safely advance one base (which is now the point of contention - did the 1B runner actually "advance" one base since he missed second base). Also, the offensive manager does not get an option in this situation. The situation you are thinking about is catcher's interference, I believe.

 

Well that's what I was trying to say anyways :lol:, I guess it didn't read like that. After looking it up to be sure, that is the correct ruling(since the runner on 1B never actually obtained 2B). You are correct about the option though, and I was thinking of CI. Good scenario.

A few more:

 

1. A fly ball hit deep to right field along the foul line hits the RF in the head. The ball then bounces off his head(in fair territory) and, in flight, goes over the outfield fence on the foul side of the pole. What is the ruling here?

 

2. Runner on 2B. BR lines a double into the gap. Runner on 2nd makes slight contact with SS who is moving in and out at 2B when the ball is hit. LF fields ball cleanly and throws the runner from 2nd out at the plate by a country mile. You make the call!!

 

**This is a combination of rules and a judgement call, so no answer will be completely wrong or right.

 

3. The 1st baseman for Team A is holding a runner on 1st base. He has one foot in fair territory and one foot in foul territory. Upon a pitch being delivered the 1st base coach begins screaming for a fielders balk. You make the call!! BONUS: What would be the ruling if he had 2 feet in foul territory before the pitch.

1) My initial thought was Homerun but I have to with ground rule Double.

2) Out at home

3) I hope the coach of the Lexington all star team sees this one. If one toe is in the field of play the fielder is considered to be in the field of play, So no balk. Both feet COMPLETELY in foul territory then fielders balk.

Out. He never acquired first base, so it is still a force play.

 

Does F3 appeal that the runner missed the bag or just "accidentally" step on the bag? If he appeals I have an out. If not, I've got nothing.

 

I would go with the thinking that its a force since the runner never touched first .However, many umpires say that the only way the runner can be put out is to tag them. Apparently, there is a ruling/interpretation that says there must be a tag.

 

That surprises me.

3) I hope the coach of the Lexington all star team sees this one. If one toe is in the field of play the fielder is considered to be in the field of play, So no balk. Both feet COMPLETELY in foul territory then fielders balk.

 

Isn't the fielder's balk a myth? Isn't it really a "don't do that" with no penalty to the defense?

Isn't the fielder's balk a myth? Isn't it really a "don't do that" with no penalty to the defense?

 

YES!!! The "fielder's balk" is an absolute, complete, unequivocal myth!! I am now an expert on this. I became so annoyed by this one umpire crew in Cincinnati (Umpires R Us) that continually called this that I did a bunch of research, including calling the Harry Wendelstadt School of Umpiring and I even called the Director of Umpires for MLB (you guys probably thought I was kidding when I said I was a rules freak!). So here's the deal:

 

First of all, outside the catcher, all fielders must be in fair territory on the field of play at the time of the pitch. Sorry Coach K, but I must correct one thing: To be in the field of play, you must have BOTH feet in fair territory. It is the same as the ruling for the coach's box (they must have both feet in there, though no one ever calls them on this), the batter's box (one foot out of box means you are OUT of box), or the catcher's box (on IBB, he must have BOTH feet in the box at the time of the pitch). However, if a fielder does not (and really, the only fielder we could be talking about is the first baseman) have both feet inside the lines, there is NO PENALTY. All the umpire does is tell him to get both feet inside the line. Technically, there cannot even be a legal pitch made since all fielders must be in fair territory. However, MLB told me that this is something they NEVER enforce and would only do so if the other team objected. If they did so object, the MLB rep told me they would then enforce the coach's box rules also, something that none of the coach's would want. This whole thing started back in the 1980's when the Boston Red Sox were making an appeal play to first on a batter they felt missed the bag (the batter was now on third) and sent their 2Bman behind first base to back up the play in the event the pitcher threw wildly over there on the pickoff and allowed the guy on third to score.

 

So there, now you know more than you ever wanted to know about the non-existent "fielder's balk." Don't ever let any umpire call this on you. EVER. :irked:

I would go with the thinking that its a force since the runner never touched first .However, many umpires say that the only way the runner can be put out is to tag them. Apparently, there is a ruling/interpretation that says there must be a tag.

 

That surprises me.

 

Any chance you could find the ruling for me? I'll look myself also - and it may very well exist - but I don't see how it becomes a tag play if he completely missed the bag.

A few more:

 

1. A fly ball hit deep to right field along the foul line hits the RF in the head. The ball then bounces off his head(in fair territory) and, in flight, goes over the outfield fence on the foul side of the pole. What is the ruling here?

 

2. Runner on 2B. BR lines a double into the gap. Runner on 2nd makes slight contact with SS who is moving in and out at 2B when the ball is hit. LF fields ball cleanly and throws the runner from 2nd out at the plate by a country mile. You make the call!!

 

**This is a combination of rules and a judgement call, so no answer will be completely wrong or right.

 

3. The 1st baseman for Team A is holding a runner on 1st base. He has one foot in fair territory and one foot in foul territory. Upon a pitch being delivered the 1st base coach begins screaming for a fielders balk. You make the call!! BONUS: What would be the ruling if he had 2 feet in foul territory before the pitch.

 

1) Ground rule double.

2) Hard to say unless I saw the "slight contact" you are referring to, but bottomline is that the SS was NOT making a play on the ball and has no right to interfere with runner's progress, so I'd likely give the runner home.

3) As cshs pointed out - and then I went on and on and on at great length - there is NO SUCH THING as a fielder's balk. There can be no legal pitch made and the only thing the umpire can do is make the fielder get back onto the playing field with BOTH feet in fair play.