August 20, 201214 yr ^Okay, I'll bite....How can one get pregnant without having sex? I'm going to assume you weren't talking about in-vitro, etc.... Immaculate conception.
August 20, 201214 yr Most of what I am reading suggests that the incidence of pregnancy resulting from rape is approximately 5% of all reported rapes in the U.S. However, that is all reported rapes combined, and does not distinguish between the types of rape - i.e., "forcible" or "assault" rape and, for example, "date" rape and other types of situations where the sex is not forcible. I fully recognize I am on very thin ice here and I am doing my best to tread lightly. According to the FBI, in 2008 there were 89,000 reported "forcible" rapes in the U.S. (a 20 year low), accounting for 94.5% of all reported rapes. Forcible Rape - Crime in the United States 2008. Using that number of 5% of all rapes (and again, there may be some deviation between forced and un-forced rape), that means that there were approximately 4,500 pregnancies nationwide resulting from forcible rape, or 90 per state, per year. Since I am a state rights man in this arena, I guess what a state needs to look at is whether the wishes of 90 women (or less, depending upon their personal desire) per year justify a legally drafted "exception" to a potential abortion ban. It does seem to me that both ovulation and conception are highly dependent upon a mix of hormonal release that is in turn dependent upon stress, emotional state, and trauma. We know this to be true just from a woman's menstrual cycles. Typical female suffering severe emotional distress, stress, or trauma frequently is late or skips menstrual periods entirely. So, while I personally would not have let this bird out of his cage with these comments, I think the substance of them at least merits some further review?
August 20, 201214 yr As a female with an (dare I say) EXPERT knowledge of the female reproductive system, I'll just testify that one can get pregnant if raped, if willingly having sex, having sex the first time, if on the pill, if using any other sort of contraception, if 60 and not yet in menopause, and (in some cases) without actually having sex. There is no "shut down" of the female reproductive system until she becomes infertile. The only variables are whether 1) whether she is ovulating at the time of the act 2)whether the sperm fertilizes the egg and/or 3)the fertilized egg attaches to the uterine wall. From there, carrying the baby to term depends on many other factors, some not fully explained, but including one's physical reaction to stress or trauma and any damage that may have occurred to the woman's uterus, cervix, etc. There is some degree of fact + luck in getting pregnant. But none of the facts are that the woman's body reacts to the "kind" of sex she had. I can find plenty of evidence supporting pregnancy as a result of rape. I can find none directly relating a female body's ability to "decide" whether a pregnancy will result based upon the "kind" of sex that occurred. What about if standing up? Sorry, I couldn't resist.
August 20, 201214 yr Ask RM if she thinks rape is sex. Why would I need to ask Rockmom? Rape: noun 1. the unlawful compelling of a person through physical force or duress to have sexual intercourse. verb to force to have sexual intercourse. You obviously think about sex, and sexual acts a lot as evidenced by the threads you start.
August 20, 201214 yr Immaculate conception. The Immaculate Conception does not refer to Jesus' Conception by the Holy Spirit . It refers to Mary's Conception in her mothers womb . The Mother of Jesus ( God the Son ) could not be conceived or born with the stain of Original sin on her soul .Ergo the Title of Immaculate Conception as applied To the Blessed Virgin Mary Edited August 20, 201214 yr by KyTmcNcc
August 20, 201214 yr Ding, Ding we have a winner. Only if you don't know what you are talking about .
August 20, 201214 yr The Immaculate Conception does not refer to Jesus' Conception by the Holy Spirit . It refers to Mary's Conception in her mothers womb . The Mother of Jesus ( God the Son ) could not be conceived or born with the stain of Original sin on her soul .Ergo the Title of Immaculate Conception as applied To the Blessed Virgin Mary I'm not Catholic, so pardon me if that sounds like the most retarded thing I've ever heard.
August 20, 201214 yr The Immaculate Conception does not refer to Jesus' Conception by the Holy Spirit . It refers to Mary's Conception in her mothers womb . The Mother of Jesus ( God the Son ) could not be conceived or born with the stain of Original sin on her soul .Ergo the Title of Immaculate Conception as applied To the Blessed Virgin Mary Only if you don't know what you are talking about . You were saying?
August 20, 201214 yr Yep, never prayed to Mary. Neither Have I , I Pray to God through the Interession of Mary all the time though .
August 20, 201214 yr I'm not Catholic, so pardon me if that sounds like the most retarded thing I've ever heard. Retarded ??
August 20, 201214 yr Neither Have I , I Pray to God through the Interession of Mary all the time though . I pray directly to God.
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